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Sample Final Examination for Plant Biology 102
Plant Biology 102 Spring 1998

1. The largest source of carbon on earth is:
a. the atmosphere
b. the oceans
c. living organisms
d. cow stomachs
e. none of the above

2. The biological process that introduces carbon into terrestrial ecosystems is:
a. carbonate fixation
b. decomposition
c. photosynthesis
d. respiration
e. none of the above

3. Atmospheric nitrogen can be utilized by:
a. plants
b. animals
c. protozoans
d. blue-green algae
e. fungi

4. Carbon is released from living organisms by:
a. respiration
b. photosynthesis
c. nitrification
d. leakage
e. gene flow

5. Natality, immigration, emigration, and mortality all affect:
a. competition
b. mutualism
c. population size
d. birth rate
e. density-independent factors

6. Addition of excess phosphate to aquatic ecosystems results in:
a. fungal infestations
b. excessive algal growth
c. clearing of the water
d. decomposition of organic matter
e. meadow formation

7. Immigration is the:
a. birth rate of a population
b. death rate of a population
c. the movement of individuals out of an area
d. a mutualistic interaction
e. none of the above

8. A mutualistic interaction is one where:
a. both organisms involved benefit from the association
b. both organisms involved are harmed from the association
c. one organism benefits, but the other is unaffected
d. one organism is harmed from the association
e. none of the above

9. Mistletoe is a plant which has no chlorophyll and does not produce its own food. The plant lives on pine tree branches and derives its energy from the food made by the pines. The relationship between mistletoe and pine is best described as:
a. competition
b. mutualism
c. commensalism
d. parasitism
e. herbivory

10. In resource competition:
a. plants grow together successfully
b. plants compete for herbivores
c. plants compete directly for the same resource
d. plants compete for secondary compounds
e. none of the above

11. Ecological succession is the process of:
a. plant communities replacing one another through time
b. fire-mediated extinction of plants
c. farmers selling the farm and moving on to other business ventures
d. animals successfully defending their territories
e. none of the above

12. A pioneer species is a species that:
a. arrives in the ecosystem in a covered wagon
b. may colonize bare rock
c. arrives after lichens
d. stays in the ecosystem indefinitely
e. cannot survive in disturbed habitats

13. Secondary succession occurs when:
a. farmers abandon cultivated land
b. a student finishes middle school
c. bare rock is exposed after a glacier retreats
d. beaches form on the shoreline of Lake Michigan
e. beaches form at the ocean

14. Gregor Mendel was an Austrian monk who:
a. discovered chromosomes
b. coined the term, "allele"
c. worked with corn and discovered transposons
d. left the monastery to become a famous botanist
e. explained the mechanism of heredity

15. A dominant allele is one that:
a. is always expressed when present
b. is only expressed when homozygous
c. shows up in the phenotype only when there are two copies
d. always causes a genetic defect in the offspring
e. is masked in an F1 hybrid

16. The offspring for a tall plant with a genotype (Tt) that has been crossed with a
short plant with a genotype (tt) would exhibit a phenotypic ratio of tall to short of:
a. 1:1
b. 9:3:3:1
c. 3:1
d. 4:0
e. none of the above

17. The phenotype is:
a. one stage of meiosis
b. the sum of all genes in the genome
c. what an organism looks like
d. the unit of inheritance
e. the product of independent segregation of genes

18. The offspring for a tall plant with a genotype (TT) that has been crossed with a
short plant with a genotype (tt) would exhibit a phenotypic ratio of tall to short of:
a. 1:1
b. 9:3:3:1
c. 3:1
d. 4:0
e. none of the above

19. A homozygous genotype is one where:
a. there are copies of two different alleles
b. two copies of the same gamete fuse to form a zygote
c. the genes are linked on the same chromosome
d. the alleles are in the haploid phase of meiosis
e. there are two copies of the same allele

20. Meiosis is:
a. identical to mitosis except for the spelling
b. a process that occurs in plant roots
c. the formation of stamens and pistils in plants
d. a process involved in vegetative reproduction
e. a source of genetic variation in plants

21. Homologous chromosomes are those that:
a. come from the same parent
b. have different sets of genes when lined up together
c. have copies of the same genes that come from two different parents
d. are found in different tissue types
e. line up and pair during anaphase of meiosis

22. Chromosomes are the structures in eukaryotic cells that:
a. pair with ribosomes during protein synthesis
b. disintegrate during gamete formation
c. are responsible for bacterial conjugation
d. duplicate during the second phase of meiosis
e. carry genetic information

23. A gene is:
a. a sequence of RNA
b. a sequence of DNA
c. a sequence of amino acids
d. a chromosome
e. a + c

24. During gene expression:
a. RNA is translated to DNA and then a protein forms
b. DNA is made into more DNA and then a protein forms
c. DNA codes for RNA that then directs protein formation
d. the ribosome makes RNA and then protein
e. the ribosome makes DNA then RNA and then protein

25. In the synthesis of protein, tRNA is responsible for
a. bringing amino acids to mRNA
b. copying DNA in the nucleus
c. tRNA IS the protein
d. turning on the correct gene sequence

26. Barbara McClintock was:
a. an Austrian nun who worked with peas
b. the individual who formulated the chromosomal theory of inheritance
c. the first person to use a microscope to study meiosis
d. the discoverer of transposable elements
e. the person who developed hybrid seed for corn growers

27. A simple transposon:
a. is a DNA segment that codes for an enzyme for its own insertion into other DNA
sequences
b. is a DNA segment that codes for several genes, including one for its own insertion
c. is found only in chloroplasts
d. is the kind that never moves around in the genome
e. codes for the lactose operon

28. A bacterial plasmid is:
a. the same as a transposable element
b. as large as the bacterial chromosome
c. an extrachromosomal piece of DNA
d. never inserted into the bacterial chromosome
e. a control element for crossing over

29. Restriction enzymes are:
a. proteins that cut double-stranded DNA
b. proteins that connect different DNA molecules
c. cloning vectors
d. proteins that confer antibiotic resistance
e. conjugation factors

30. Which of the following are positive aspects of genetic engineering?
a. it can be used to produce pharmaceuticals cheaply
b. it can increase food yield
c. it can reduce tillage
d. all of the above

31. Which of the following is a true statement?
a. dinosaur DNA has been isolated and amplified with PCR
b. Arabidopsis plants have been genetically engineered to produce plastic
c. research and development costs are generally very low (<$10,000) to produce genetically engineered plants.
d. it is impossible for transgenes to move from crops into wild populations.

32. Genetic engineering has been used to:
a. keep tomatoes from producing ethylene gas
b. keep tomatoes from being picked by machines
c. remove all flavor from store-bought tomatoes
d. make crop plants less resistant to herbivory
e. none of the above

33. Charles Darwin was alive
a. in 1750
b. in 1850
c. in 1950
d. long before Gregor Mendel
e. none of the above

34. One of the books that inspired Charles Darwin to develop his ideas on natural
selection was:
a. The Bible
b. Principles of Geology
c. The Origin of Species
d. The Geographical Distribution of Animals
e. none of the above

35. "Survival of the fittest" means:
a. only the strongest individuals in a population survive
b. the individuals that can obtain the most resources survive
c. you are an OSU student and you found a parking space this morning
d. some varieties are more reproductively successful than others in a population
e. there is a struggle for existence

36. In stabilizing selection:
a. extreme forms of a trait are favored over intermediate forms
b. a successful phenotype is maintained, but extreme forms are not favored
c. all phenotypes are maintained
d. one trait replaces another
e. all genotypes are maintained

37. The gene pool is:
a. the total of all genes in the nucleus
b. the total of all alleles in a population
c. the total of all genes in a monohybrid cross
d. the total of all alleles involved in the phenotype
e. what you want to jump into on a hot day

38. The Hardy-Weinberg Law states:
a. gene frequencies are changing from generation to generation
b. gene frequencies are variable in individuals
c. gene frequencies stay the same generation after generation
d. gene frequencies never change in individuals
e. none of the above

39. The morphological species concept states that:
a. a species is a group of individuals with nearly identical phenotypes
b. a species is a group of individuals that look different from one another
c. a species is a group of individuals that are unable to breed with other groups
d. a species is a group of individuals with variable genotypes
e. a species is a group of individuals having morphologies

40. Reproductive isolation in natural populations can occur through:
a. recombinant DNA techniques
b. mitosis
c. spatial separation of individuals
d. independent assortment of genes
e. hybridization

41. Evolution is:
a. the principle mechanism of natural selection
b. a process that can occur within individuals
c. a process that happens instantaneously
d. the way the diversity of life on earth has arisen
e. a key innovation responsible for adaptive radiations

42. Adaptations are specific features of an organism:
a. that enable an individual to evolve
b. that fit it to its environment
c. that cause a change in the genotype of an individual
d. are important in assessing relationships of species
e. none of the above

43. Cacti and euphorbs live in deserts and look very similar, yet they are completely unrelated. This is an example of
a. adaptive radiation
b. coevolution
c. convergent evolution
d. uniformitarianism
e. competition

44. Plant secondary metabolites are involved in:
a. photosynthesis
b. respiration
c. ATP formation
d. gene expression
e. protective mechanisms

45. The class of plant secondary compounds which contains nitrogen is the:
a. terpenoids
b. phenolics
c. alkaloids
d. alcohols
e. lignins

46. Secondary compounds function in plants by
a. making plants unpalatable to herbivores
b. making plants more attractive to parasites
c. accelerating the rate of photosynthesis
d. conferring stress tolerance to plants
e. all of the above

47. Bird predators avoid all orange and black butterflies after one exposure to a monarch butterfly. What is the reason for this?
a. orange and black butterflies are too fast to catch
b. monarchs produce toxins in their bodies which cause a violent reaction in birds
c. monarchs store toxins from the milkweed plants that they eat. The toxins are produced by the plant to protect the leaves from herbivory and they cause a violent reaction in birds.
d. the colors orange and black are not within the visible spectrum of birds
e. none of the above

48. A plant growing under nutrient poor, dry desert conditions keeps its leaves for several years. What type of plant defenses would you expect it to produce?
a. small nitrogen-containing compounds
b. large carbon-containing compounds
c. qualitative defenses
d. it probably would not produce any defenses

49. The two major factors that control the distribution of plants are:
a. soil type and rainfall
b. temperature and soil type
c. precipitation and elevation
d. temperature and precipitation
e. day length and soil type

50. What is the principle mechanism of evolution?
a. meiosis
b. recombination
c. genetic variability
d. natural selection
e. over production

51. The North American biome characterized by permafrost is:
a. tundra
b. taiga
c. moist coniferous forest
d. eastern deciduous forest
e. prairie

52. The North American biome where almost every plant has thorns or spines is:
a. tundra
b. moist coniferous forest
c. eastern deciduous forest
d. prairie
e. desert

53. Increased algal growth (algal blooms) in lakes can result in:
a. an increase in phosphorus content
b. increased oxygen content of the lake
c. decreased oxygen content of the lake
d. increased populations of aquatic flowering plants
e. increased populations of fish

54. Blue-green algae are members of kingdom:
a. protista
b. fungi
c. plantae
d. eubacteria
e. animalia

55. Blue-green algae and rhizobium have this in common:
a. they are both plants
b. they are both algae
c. they can both go through photosynthesis
d. they can both live inside animals
e. they can both fix atmospheric nitrogen

56.Red algae
a. has no economic importance
b. is eukaryotic
c. belongs to Archaebacteria
d. contains vascular tissue
e. produces seeds

57. Division Chrysophyta include:
a. euglenoids
b. bacteria
c. green algae
d. red algae
e. diatoms

58. Members of Division Chlorophyta:
a. are only single-celled organisms
b. include mosses and liverworts
c. have photosynthetic pigments identical to pine trees
d. are parasites of higher plants
e. can fix atmospheric nitrogen

59. Fucus is a member of the:
a. Green algae
b. Red algae
c. Dinoflagellates
d. Brown algae
e. Golden algae

60. Carrageenan, used as a stabilizer in ice cream is derived from organisms belonging to:
a. Green algae
b. Red algae
c. Brown algae
d. Mosses and Liverworts
e. Gymnosperms

61. Mosses are plants that have:
a. seeds
b. a vascular system
c. free-swimming sperm
d. free-swimming eggs
e. flowers

62. In mosses, the dominant generation is:
a. the diploid phase
b. the haploid phase
c. the seed
d. the part that grows only in water
e. none of the above

63. In ferns, the large green fronds are in:
a. the diploid phase
b. the haploid phase
c. the gametophyte phase
d. the prothallus stage
e. the archegonia structure

64. The first structure produced following meiosis in ferns.
a. spore
b. sperm
c. sporophyte
d. egg
e. diploid

65. Of the following choices, ferns are most likely found in:
a. arctic tundra environments
b. city parks of North America
c. prairies
d. deserts
e. tropical rain forests

66. Bryophyte spores germinate to produce:
a. a sporophyte
b. a gametophyte
c. a seed
d. a rhizome
e. a diploid plant

67. Ferns differ from mosses because:
a. they have spores
b. they produce gametophytes and sporophytes
c. they have vascular tissue
d. they have free-swimming sperm
e. they have antheridia

68. An order includes a __________ diversity of organisms than a family.
a. greater
b. lesser
c. identical

69. Ginkgo, pine, Gnetum and Welwitchia are:
a. mosses
b. ferns
c. gymnosperms
d. angiosperms
e. cycads

70. Gymnosperms are characterized by:
a. free-swimming sperm
b. chitin in their cell walls
c. naked seed
d. covered seed
e. flowers

71. Angiosperms are characterized by:
a. free-swimming sperm
b. heart-shaped gametophyte
c. naked seed
d. covered seed
e. spores

72. Pine trees are pollinated by:
a. bees
b. humming birds
c. flies
d. wind currents
e. beetles

73. In a flower, the structure that receives the pollen is:
a. the ovule
b. the stamen
c. the petal
d. the nectary
e. the stigma

74. In a flower, the structure that forms pollen grains is:
a. the anther
b. the style
c. the ovule
d. the stigma
e. the petal

75. Mushrooms are classified in which kingdom?
a. the Magic Kingdom
b. Fungi
c. Plantae
d. Deuteromycota
e. Protista

76. Plants invaded land in the:
a. Cenozoic
b. Paleozoic
c. Precambrian
d. Plants were always present on land
e. Mesozoic

77. The atmosphere of the early earth did NOT include
a. N2
b. O2
c. CO2
d. H20
e. all of the above were present

78. Which is the correct order of appearance of plant groups in the fossil record?
a. mosses, gymnosperms, angiosperms, ferns
b. prokaryotes, eukaryotes, heterotrophs
c. ferns, mosses, angiosperms, gymnosperms
d. bryophytes, ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms

79. The second law of thermodynamics states that:
a. energy is created by the sun
b. energy is destroyed in the food chain
c. all systems tend towards disorder
d. order comes from disorder

80. A community ecologist would study
a. the effect of browsing rabbits on aspen seedlings (a tree)
b. competition between sunflower and grasses on the prairie
c. species diversity in tropical rainforests
d. birth and death rates of an endangered species
e. a, b, and c

81. Which best describes energy in an ecosystem?
a. 10% of energy is lost from producers to herbivores and from herbivores to the secondary consumers that eat them.
b. the biomass of each level of the food chain is about 90% that of the one below it (e.g. 100g of grass supports 90g of grasshoppers)
c. energy is recycled and feeds back into the bottom level of an energy pyramid
d. the energy on earth comes almost exclusively from the sun and gets into the ecosystem through the producers.

82. Nitrogen is an essential component of:
a. lipids
b. amino acids
c. carbohydrates
d. phosphate
e. sugar

83. Raccoons eat plants and meat. They are:
a. producers
b. omnivores
c. prokaryotes
d. carnivores
e. eutrophic

84. A tall tree intercepts the sun in the forest canopy, restricting access to this resource for the small herbs that grow on the forest floor. This is an example of
a. resource competition
b. interference competition
c. limiting the factors
d. canopy sprawl
e. eutrophication

85. Which of the following is an example of a place where primary succession will take place?
a. a logged forest
b. an abandoned agricultural field
c. a lava flow on a volcanic island
d. all of the above are examples of secondary succession

86. What do angiosperms have that gymnosperms do not?
a. pollen
b. vascular tissue
c. seeds
d. woody tissue
e. fruit

87. After double fertilization occurs in an angiosperm:
a. the embryo is haploid
b. the endosperm is triploid
c. the embryo is triploid
d. the endosperm is diploid
e. the endosperm is haploid

88. The key to the biological species concept is:
a. physical appearance
b. time of appearance in the fossil record
c. reproductive isolation
d. differential reproductive success
e. genetic equilibrium

89. In the hierarchy of relationships, the category above species and genus is:
a. kingdom
b. order
c. class
d. family
e. phylum

90. Prokaryotic organisms have:
a. membrane-bound organelles
b. ribosomes
c. nuclei
d. chloroplasts
e. mitochondria

91. New plants can become new species instantaneously as a result of:
a. polyploidy
b. spontaneous generations
c. crossing over
d. recombination
e. this is impossible

92. Mold is a(n):
a. plant
b. bacteria
c. prokaryote
d. alga
e. fungus

93. Liverworts are:
a. algae
b. gymnosperms
c. bryophytes
d. ferns
e. angiosperms

94. The age of the earth is approximately:
a. 6,000 years old
b. 1 million years old
c. 10 billion years old
d. 100 million years old
e. 4.5 billion years old

95. Fire is common in:
a. chaparral
b. prairie
c. lodgepole pine forest
d. moist coniferous forest
e. a, b, and c

96. The addition of nitrogen to a terrestrial system increases the growth of plants. Nitrogen is a
a. competitor
b. parasite
c. toxic nutrient
d. limiting factor

97. An example of an autotrophic organism would be:
a. a cat
b. a fungus
c. a diatom
d. an insect
e. an intestinal bacterium

98. An example of a heterotrophic organism would be:
a. a blue-green algae
b. a cyanobacteria
c. a diatom
d. a fungus
e. a plant

99. Ecosystem ecology includes:
a. the study of adaptations to the environment
b. the study of plants in groups as they interact with other groups
c. the study of within-population processes
d. the study of energy flow and nutrient cycles
e. the study of ecotypes

100. Evolution CANNOT occur
a. when the Hardy Weinberg assumptions are violated
b. when gene frequencies remain the same over time
c. when mutations are common
d. when populations are small


Answer key: 1b, 2c, 3d,4a, 5c, 6b, 7e, 8a, 9d, 10c, 11a, 12b, 13a, 14e, 15a, 16a, 17c, 18d, 19e, 20e, 21c, 22e, 23b, 24c, 25a, 26d, 27a, 28c, 29a, 30d, 31b, 32a, 33b, 34b, 35d, 36b, 37b, 38c, 39a, 40c, 41d, 42b, 43c, 44e, 45c, 46a, 47b, 48b, 49d, 50d, 51a, 52e, 53c, 54d, 55e, 56b, 57e, 58c, 59d, 60b, 61c, 62b, 63a, 64a, 65e, 66b, 67c, 68a, 69c, 70c, 71d, 72d, 73e, 74a, 75b, 76b, 77b, 78d, 79c, 80e, 81d, 82b, 83b, 84b, 85c, 86e, 87c, 88c, 89d, 90b, 91a, 92e, 93c, 94e, 95e, 96d, 97c, 98d, 99d, 100b

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Last updated 3 June 1998.